Communication Technologies by Stallings
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Stallings
Chapter 01 Exam
|
|
1. The four forms of information used by modern information systems are voice, data, image, and video.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
The number of computers and terminals at work in the world today is over 100
million.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
Communications technologies using data networks have essentially replaced
telephone networks in today’s business settings.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
Computerization has enhanced the range of features available to businesses for
voice communication.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
The need to store and transmit images has been a driving force in the
development of networking technology.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
Video networks in business are used primarily to deliver programming.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
Data compression is used to minimize the amount of information that must be
transmitted in networks.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
The major cost component for communications is the resource needed to transmit
data across distance.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
Wireless networks have the advantage of mobility, but the disadvantage of
difficult implementation.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
The basic building block of any communications facility is the transmission
line.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
The two media technologies currently driving the evolution of data
communications networks are local area networks and cable television networks
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
12.
The most common example of packet switched technology is the modern telephone
network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
13.
The three forces that have driven the architecture and evolution of data
communications and networking facilities are
a. Traffic growth, advances in technology, and legal
considerations.
b. Traffic growth, development of services, and advances in technology.
c. Development of services advances in technology, and legal considerations.
d. Advances in technology, lower costs, and greater capacities.
e. Voice applications, the advent of the Internet, and increased mobility of users.
b. Traffic growth, development of services, and advances in technology.
c. Development of services advances in technology, and legal considerations.
d. Advances in technology, lower costs, and greater capacities.
e. Voice applications, the advent of the Internet, and increased mobility of users.
Answer:
_____
14.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four types of information found on
networks?
a. data
b. voice
c. video
d. image
e. control
b. voice
c. video
d. image
e. control
Answer:
_____
15.
Which of the following is NOT one of the stated trends in technology identified
as contributing to increasing traffic and services in networks?
a. The emergence of the Internet.
b. More and more people are discovering the World Wide Web as a valuable resource.
c. The ever-increasing use of mobile devices and applications.
d. Increasing quality and variety of services in both voice and data networks.
e. The fact the both computing and communication technologies are getting faster and cheaper.
b. More and more people are discovering the World Wide Web as a valuable resource.
c. The ever-increasing use of mobile devices and applications.
d. Increasing quality and variety of services in both voice and data networks.
e. The fact the both computing and communication technologies are getting faster and cheaper.
Answer:
_____
16.
Among the application services lists given below, which lists the services in
order such that the desired throughput rates are increasing?
a. Still image transfers, large file transfers, transaction
processing, and voice.
b. Voice, transaction processing, still image transfers, and large file transfers.
c. Large file transfers, voice, transaction processing, and still image transfers.
d. Transaction processing, voice, still image transfers, and large file transfers.
e. Transaction processing, still image transfers, voice, and large file transfers.
b. Voice, transaction processing, still image transfers, and large file transfers.
c. Large file transfers, voice, transaction processing, and still image transfers.
d. Transaction processing, voice, still image transfers, and large file transfers.
e. Transaction processing, still image transfers, voice, and large file transfers.
Answer:
_____
17.
Which of the following is NOT one of the main application areas that serve as
one of the drivers in determining the design and makeup of enterprise networks?
a. Transaction processing
b. IP telephony
c. Multimedia messaging
d. E-business
e. Customer relationship management
b. IP telephony
c. Multimedia messaging
d. E-business
e. Customer relationship management
Answer:
_____
18.
The concept that describes the merger of previously distinct telephony and
information technologies and markets is called
a. unification.
b. bundling.
c. outsourcing.
d. merger.
e. convergence.
b. bundling.
c. outsourcing.
d. merger.
e. convergence.
Answer:
_____
19.
Which of the following is NOT one of the four layers in the model of
business-driven convergence?
a. Networks
b. Infrastructure
c. Management
d. Services
e. Applications
b. Infrastructure
c. Management
d. Services
e. Applications
Answer:
_____
20.
The types of networks commonly used in businesses today include
a. Local area networks, wide-area networks, and telephone
networks.
b. Local area networks, telephone networks, and voice mail networks.
c. Wide area networks, voice mail networks, and email networks.
d. Voice mail networks, email networks, and local area networks.
e. Television networks, voice networks, and data networks.
b. Local area networks, telephone networks, and voice mail networks.
c. Wide area networks, voice mail networks, and email networks.
d. Voice mail networks, email networks, and local area networks.
e. Television networks, voice networks, and data networks.
Answer:
_____
21.
Which of the following is the most commonly used standard for computer
communications?
a. SLA
b. TCP/IP
c. ISO
d. USD
e. DLINK
b. TCP/IP
c. ISO
d. USD
e. DLINK
Answer:
_____
22.
In the past, the data processing function was organized around a single
computer. Today, it is much more common to find many computers linked by
networks. This approach to data processing is called
a. Decentralized computing.
b. Disconnected computing.
c. Distributed computing.
d. Client computing.
e. Connected computing.
b. Disconnected computing.
c. Distributed computing.
d. Client computing.
e. Connected computing.
Answer:
_____
23.
Two types of transmission media recently gaining in popularity in business
communications are _____ connections and _____ cables.
Answer:
24.
Types of networks commonly used at business premises are called _____.
Answer:
25.
Types of networks commonly used with multiple premises in businesses are called
_________.
Answer:
26.
An architecture where multiple computers provide database functions, file
services, printing services, and other specialized functions on a shared basis
for many users is called a ___________ architecture.
Answer:
27.
Explain why networks have become so important to businesses today?
Answer:
28.
Explain how local area networks differ from wide area networks.
Answer:
29.
Contrast how circuit-switched networks and how packet-switched work.
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 02 Exam
|
BUSINESS INFORMATION
|
1. Today, all networked information is sent using digital formats.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
A single bit of information represents two states or values.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
The terms byte and octet describe the same amount of
information.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
Voice communication can only be done using an analog signal.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
PBX and Centrex systems provide similar functionality from the users
point-of-view.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
Services transmitting video information use a series of vector images to
represent moving images.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
System response time and system cost are closely related to each other.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
Response time is extremely important when implementing email systems.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
When transmitting video information, compression ratios can range as high as
100:1 with little loss of perceived quality.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
Interlacing is a method of reducing the bandwidth requirements for video
transmissions.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
When using analog communications, channel capacity is measure in hertz (Hz)
where 1 Hz equals 1000 oscillations per second.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
12.
The United States national version of IRA is referred to as the American
Standard Code for Information Interchange (ASCII).
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
13.
For each of the following binary values, indicate which decimal value is
equivalent.
___ 1. 10
___ 2. 1010
___ 3. 11
___ 4. 1111
___ 5. 101
___ 2. 1010
___ 3. 11
___ 4. 1111
___ 5. 101
a. 3
b. 10
c. 15
d. 5
e. 2
b. 10
c. 15
d. 5
e. 2
14.
Select all of the following which represent digital forms of information.
a. A watch with two hands
b. A mechanical odometer on a car
c. A watch that displays time as HH:MM
d. A gas gauge
e. A page filled with English prose
f. A fax transmission
b. A mechanical odometer on a car
c. A watch that displays time as HH:MM
d. A gas gauge
e. A page filled with English prose
f. A fax transmission
Answers:
____________________
15.
Which of the following represents the most basic unit of digital information?
a. Byte
b. Nibble
c. Pixel
d. Bit
e. Octet
b. Nibble
c. Pixel
d. Bit
e. Octet
Answer:
_____
16.
Standard voice telephone lines, such as those found in residences, limit
bandwidth to
a. 300 Hz
b. 3,400 Hz
c. 8,000 Hz
d. 20,000 Hz
e. 1,410,000 Hz
b. 3,400 Hz
c. 8,000 Hz
d. 20,000 Hz
e. 1,410,000 Hz
Answer:
_____
17.
A stereo compact disc typically requires the bandwidth for each channel to be
a. 300 Hz
b. 3,400 Hz
c. 8,000 Hz
d. 20,000 Hz
e. 1,410,000 Hz
b. 3,400 Hz
c. 8,000 Hz
d. 20,000 Hz
e. 1,410,000 Hz
Answer:
_____
18.
When using data communications with 8-bit codes, the number of alphabetic
symbols
a. must be exactly 256.
b. must be greater than 8.
c. can be greater than 1024 bytes.
d. must be less than 256.
e. determines the number of octets.
b. must be greater than 8.
c. can be greater than 1024 bytes.
d. must be less than 256.
e. determines the number of octets.
Answer:
_____
19.
Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal value 22?
a. 10110
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101
Answer:
_____
20.
Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal value 24?
a. 10110
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101
Answer:
_____
21.
Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal value 18?
a. 10110
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101
Answer:
_____
22.
Which of the following is the binary representation of the decimal value 21?
a. 10110
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101
b. 11000
c. 10010
d. 10110
e. 10101
Answer:
_____
23.
The time interval between when a user presses a key and when the result of that
action arrives at his or her workstation is called the
a. response time.
b. turn-around time.
c. think time.
d. delay time.
e. transmission time.
b. turn-around time.
c. think time.
d. delay time.
e. transmission time.
Answer:
_____
24.
A representation of images that uses straight and curved line segments is
called ________.
Answer:
25.
A representation of images that uses an array of pixels is called ______.
Answer:
26.
When using an eight-value gray-scale image, ____ bits per pixel are needed.
Answer:
27.
Place the following information types in order by the required data rates with
the 1 needing the slowest and 6 needing the fastest.
___ color image
___ HDTV
___ text
___ black and white image
___ CD audio
___ voice
___ HDTV
___ text
___ black and white image
___ CD audio
___ voice
28.
List the four types of information that are communicated over networks.
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 03 Exam
|
DISTRIBUTED DATA PROCESSING
|
1. Traditionally, data processing has been organized in a distributed model.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
Centralized data processing typically involves terminals connected to large
computers in a central data processing facility.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
Intranets use the same communication protocols and applications as the
Internet.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
Like the Internet, intranets are difficult to manage.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
Extranets use different protocols and applications than are used in Intranets.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
Retail point of sale systems are an example of horizontal partitioning of data
processing.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
Database applications are always distributed applications.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
Replicated databases involve copying all or part of the database to additional
computers.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
A partitioned database is by definition not a replicated database.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
The three types of requirements for networking resulting from DDP are
connectivity, availability, and performance.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
Match the replication strategies below with the appropriate design architecture
it uses.
___ 1. Real-time replication
___ 2. Near-real-time replications
___ 3. Deferred replications
___ 2. Near-real-time replications
___ 3. Deferred replications
a. Lock and load
b. Three-phase commit
c. Cascade or broadcast distribution
d. Messaging and queuing
e. Two-phase commit
b. Three-phase commit
c. Cascade or broadcast distribution
d. Messaging and queuing
e. Two-phase commit
12.
Which of the following is not a feature of an Intranet?
a. Uses Internet based standards, such as HTML and SMTP
b. Uses the TCP/IP protocol for local and wide-area networking
c. Is used to distribute content to the general Internet
d. Can be effectively managed
e. Is used to connect both local and remote sites into one network
b. Uses the TCP/IP protocol for local and wide-area networking
c. Is used to distribute content to the general Internet
d. Can be effectively managed
e. Is used to connect both local and remote sites into one network
Answer:
_____
13.
Which of the following typically is not supported by distributed processing?
a. Applications
b. Device controllers
c. Data
d. Control
e. Mainframes
b. Device controllers
c. Data
d. Control
e. Mainframes
Answer:
_____
14.
Which of the following is not a benefit of distributed data processing?
a. Increased responsiveness to organizational needs
b. Better correspondence to organizational patterns
c. Greater user involvement and control
d. Enhanced centralization of data definitions
e. Reduced systems incompatibility
b. Better correspondence to organizational patterns
c. Greater user involvement and control
d. Enhanced centralization of data definitions
e. Reduced systems incompatibility
Answer:
_____
15.
Which of the following is not a function provided by servers in client/server
systems?
a. Printing services
b. Data entry
c. Database services
d. Gateways
e. Fax services
b. Data entry
c. Database services
d. Gateways
e. Fax services
Answer:
_____
16.
The three ways of organizing data for use by an organization are
a. centralized, replicated, and partitioned.
b. centralized, structured, and partitioned.
c. structured, replicated, and partitioned.
d. centralized, replicated, and structured.
e. distributed, replicated, and partitioned.
b. centralized, structured, and partitioned.
c. structured, replicated, and partitioned.
d. centralized, replicated, and structured.
e. distributed, replicated, and partitioned.
Answer:
_____
17.
Two types of distributed data processing are ___ and ____ partitioning.
Answer:
18.
An increasingly common organizational approach for distributed data processing
is the ________ architecture.
Answer:
19.
Which aspects of data processing can be centralized?
Answer:
20.
List and describe the three primary methods for replicating databases.
Answer:
21.
Describe some benefits and drawbacks of distributed data processing.
Answer:
22.
Describe the key differences and similarities between Internets, Intranets, and
Extranets.
Answer:
23.
List and describe at least two factors that have led to the increase in DDP.
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 04 Exam
|
INTERNET HISTORY AND ARCHITECTURE
|
1. The Internet grew out of a Department of Education project.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
ARPANet was the first message-switching network .
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
When using circuit switching, a dedicated path of transmission facilities is
established between the communicating parties.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
When using message switching instead of packet switching, a dedicated path must
be established between the parties for all messages that are sent.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
Packet switching is like message switching except that the unit of data sent at
one time is limited in size, thus requiring larger messages to be broken into
pieces.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
A computer connected to the Internet is called a host.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
The National Science Foundation was responsible for many of the policy
decisions that led to the modern Internet.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
In the Internet, individual hosts and/or local area networks are connected to
an Internet services provider through a point-of-presence.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
Commercial use of the Internet was discouraged until approximately 1988.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
Hosts connected to the Internet are identified by a unique 24-bit number that
identifies a network and specific host within that network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
A paradigm for electronic communications where a dedicated path is opened and
maintained during the exchange is called
a. message switching.
b. circuit switching.
c. packet switching.
d. data switching.
e. analog switching.
b. circuit switching.
c. packet switching.
d. data switching.
e. analog switching.
Answer:
_____
12.
A paradigm for electronic communications where messages are split into blocks
of data with limited size, which are then transmitted one-by-one across the
network is called
a. message switching.
b. circuit switching.
c. packet switching.
d. data switching.
e. analog switching.
b. circuit switching.
c. packet switching.
d. data switching.
e. analog switching.
Answer:
_____
13.
The first two important applications developed for the ARPANET where
a. Telnet and FTP.
b. Telnet and email.
c. Telnet and world-wide-web.
d. FTP and email.
e. Email and world-wide-web.
b. Telnet and email.
c. Telnet and world-wide-web.
d. FTP and email.
e. Email and world-wide-web.
Answer:
_____
14.
The first "killer application" for the ARPANET was
a. Telnet.
b. FTP.
c. Email.
d. World-wide-web.
e. Remote login.
b. FTP.
c. Email.
d. World-wide-web.
e. Remote login.
Answer:
_____
15.
The development of a internationally distributed collection of multimedia files
addressed using universal resource locators led to the
a. Telnet package.
b. Email system.
c. World-wide-web.
d. FTP package.
e. Domain resource locator.
b. Email system.
c. World-wide-web.
d. FTP package.
e. Domain resource locator.
Answer:
_____
16.
The problems of using IP numbers for addressing hosts in the Internet are
resolved using
a. the concept of domains and the use of domain names.
b. the use of Telnet applications.
c. the use of email servers.
d. splitting IP addresses into four octets.
e. using fixed routing paths through the network.
b. the use of Telnet applications.
c. the use of email servers.
d. splitting IP addresses into four octets.
e. using fixed routing paths through the network.
Answer:
_____
17.
The Domain Name System (DNS) is comprised of four elements. Which of the
following is NOT one of these elements?
a. The domain name space
b. IP addresses
c. DNS database
d. Name servers
e. Resolvers
b. IP addresses
c. DNS database
d. Name servers
e. Resolvers
Answer:
_____
18.
The key features of the DNS database are
a. variable-depth hierarchy for names, distributed
databases, and name servers.
b. Resolvers, distributed databases, and name servers.
c. Distribution controlled by the database, resolvers, and distributed databases.
d. Domain name spaces, name servers, and variable-depth hierarchies.
e. Variable-depth hierarchy for names, distributed databases, and distribution controlled by the database.
b. Resolvers, distributed databases, and name servers.
c. Distribution controlled by the database, resolvers, and distributed databases.
d. Domain name spaces, name servers, and variable-depth hierarchies.
e. Variable-depth hierarchy for names, distributed databases, and distribution controlled by the database.
Answer:
_____
Stallings
Chapter 05 Exam
|
|
1. Protocol architectures are a set of complementary protocol modules governing communication between entities in a network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
TCP/IP is a protocol architecture .
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
UDP provides guaranteed delivery of messages.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
LANs and WANs are usually isolated entities.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
A router is a more complex intermediate system than a bridge.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6. Provide the full name for each of
the following acronyms
SAP
PDU
TCP
IP
UDP
SMTP
FTP
SNMP
OSI
SNA
PDU
TCP
IP
UDP
SMTP
FTP
SNMP
OSI
SNA
Answer:
7.
The key elements of a protocol are
a. syntax, structure, and timing.
b. syntax, semantics, and structure.
c. structure, semantics, and format.
d. format, syntax, and semantics
e. syntax, semantics, and timing.
b. syntax, semantics, and structure.
c. structure, semantics, and format.
d. format, syntax, and semantics
e. syntax, semantics, and timing.
Answer:
_____
8.
Which of the following is a commonly used set of standards for computer
communications?
a. SLA
b. ISO
c. POP
d. TCP/IP
e. FTP
b. ISO
c. POP
d. TCP/IP
e. FTP
Answer:
_____
9.
A device that connects networks with differing addressing schemes, packet sizes
and interfaces is called a
a. hub.
b. router.
c. switch.
d. repeater.
e. bridge.
b. router.
c. switch.
d. repeater.
e. bridge.
Answer:
_____
10.
The current IP specification uses addresses to identify hosts that consist of
a. 16 bits.
b. four bits.
c. 32 bits.
d. 64 bits.
e. 128 bits.
b. four bits.
c. 32 bits.
d. 64 bits.
e. 128 bits.
Answer:
_____
11.
The newer IPv6 specification uses addresses to identify hosts that consist of
a. 16 bits.
b. four bits.
c. 32 bits.
d. 64 bits.
e. 128 bits.
b. four bits.
c. 32 bits.
d. 64 bits.
e. 128 bits.
Answer:
_____
12.
Briefly describe the difference between the Internet and an intranet.
Answer:
13.
Briefly describe the difference between an intranet and an extranet.
Answer:
14.
There are two primary benefits to the use of standardized protocol
architectures—one for vendors, one for customers. Briefly describe each.
Answer:
15.
What are the seven layers of the OSI model?
Answer:
16.
What are the five layers of the TCP/IP model?
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 06 Exam
|
CLIENT/SERVER
|
1. Database applications are among the most common client-server implementations.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
Most client/server environments emphasize the use of a GUI.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
Middleware is used to overcome lack of standardization.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
Traditional client/server architecture is also called 3-tier architecture.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
Intranets are expensive to implement, but inexpensive to maintain.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
Client-server computing is fundamentally based on networking.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
Support tools for intranets are easily available.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
In a 3-tier client-server implementation, the client is typically a “thin
client.”
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
A server-based processing model uses a “fat server” rather than a “fat client.”
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
Implementing an extranet removes the need for a company to maintain a public
web site.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
Match each of the following terms with its definition.
___ 1. Client
___ 2. Middleware
___ 3. Server
___ 4. API
___ 5. SQL
___ 2. Middleware
___ 3. Server
___ 4. API
___ 5. SQL
a. A method for addressing, creating,
updating, or querying relational databases.
b. A networked information requester that can query a database or other information.
c. A set of function and call programs that allow clients and servers to intercommunicate.
d. Software that improves connectivity between a client application and a server.
e. A computer that houses information for manipulation by networked clients.
b. A networked information requester that can query a database or other information.
c. A set of function and call programs that allow clients and servers to intercommunicate.
d. Software that improves connectivity between a client application and a server.
e. A computer that houses information for manipulation by networked clients.
12. Provide the full name for each of
the following acronyms.
API
SQL
GUI
RPC
SQL
GUI
RPC
Answer:
13.
Which of the following is not a class of client/server processing?
a. Host-based processing
b. Server-based processing
c. Client-based processing
d. Cooperative processing
e. Network-based processing
b. Server-based processing
c. Client-based processing
d. Cooperative processing
e. Network-based processing
Answer:
_____
14.
Advantages of a web/database system as compared to a more traditional database
approach include
a. improved functionality and ease of administration.
b. ease of administration and transaction tracking.
c. rapid development and flexible information presentation.
d. Easy deployment and improved functionality.
e. Improved functionality and transaction tracking.
b. ease of administration and transaction tracking.
c. rapid development and flexible information presentation.
d. Easy deployment and improved functionality.
e. Improved functionality and transaction tracking.
Answer:
_____
Stallings
Chapter 07 Exam
|
INTERNET-BASED APPLICATIONS
|
1. In general public and Internet mail systems offer access to a wider range of services and more robust applications.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
Upon receipt, the SMTP receiver must decide whether to place the message in the
appropriate user mailbox or local outgoing mail queue.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
In order to be compliant, a mail system must include all five of the additional
MIME headers.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
MIME subtypes of the multi-part type are used to describe how the different
parts of a message go together.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
The simplest form of electronic mail is a single-system facility where all
users of the facility to exchange messages.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
SMTP is the standard protocol in the TCP/IP protocol suite for transferring
email between hosts.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
SMTP does not place any requirements on the contents or message bodies of mail
it processes.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
SMTP returns an end-to-end acknowledgement to the originator to indicate that
the message was successfully delivered to the recipient.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
SMTP can be used to send executable files and other binary file types.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
The key driving force behind the Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is to enable
VoIP.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
Email functions visible to a user, such as facilities for preparing and
submitting messages, filing, replying, and forwarding, are considered
a. message transfer agent functions.
b. client functions.
c. email client functions.
d. user agent functions.
e. SMTP functions.
b. client functions.
c. email client functions.
d. user agent functions.
e. SMTP functions.
Answer:
_____
12.
Email functions concerned with the protocol operations needed to transmit and
deliver messages are considered
a. message transfer agent functions.
b. client functions.
c. email client functions.
d. user agent functions.
e. SMTP functions.
b. client functions.
c. email client functions.
d. user agent functions.
e. SMTP functions.
Answer:
_____
13.
Which of the following is a true statement regarding SMTP processing of
messages?
a. Messages typically are sent through multiple SMTP systems
while going from the sender to the recipient.
b. The SMTP sender remains responsible for a message until it has been delivered to the recipient.
c. SMTP does not guarantee that all messages are delivered.
d. SMTP attempts to send messages until the recipients become available.
e. SMTP allows only one recipient for each message that is sent.
b. The SMTP sender remains responsible for a message until it has been delivered to the recipient.
c. SMTP does not guarantee that all messages are delivered.
d. SMTP attempts to send messages until the recipients become available.
e. SMTP allows only one recipient for each message that is sent.
Answer:
_____
14.
A widely used extension to the RFC 822 framework that expands what can be sent
via email is called
a. MIME.
b. ASCII.
c. VoIP.
d. SMTP.
e. IMAP.
b. ASCII.
c. VoIP.
d. SMTP.
e. IMAP.
Answer:
_____
15.
Which of the following is NOT a standard MIME content type?
a. Audio
b. Binary
c. Message
d. Image
e. Text
b. Binary
c. Message
d. Image
e. Text
Answer:
_____
16.
When using HTTP, an application program that establishes connections for the
purpose of sending requests to a server is called a
a. client.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.
Answer:
_____
17.
When using HTTP, a network data object or service that can be identified by a
URL is called a
a. client.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.
Answer:
_____
18.
When using HTTP, an application program that accepts connections in order to
service requests by sending back responses is called a
a. client.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.
b. server.
c. host.
d. resource.
e. gateway.
Answer:
_____
19.
The Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) is an application-level protocol for
setting up, modifying, and terminating real-time sessions between participants
over an IP network. SIP supports five facets of establishing and terminating
multimedia communications. Which of the following is NOT one of these facets?
a. User location
b. User type
c. User capabilities
d. Session setup
e. User availability
b. User type
c. User capabilities
d. Session setup
e. User availability
Answer:
_____
20.
SMTP is not concerned with the format or content of messages, except for two
exceptions. Which two of the following are these exceptions?
a. SMTP standardizes the message character set as 7-bit
ASCII.
b. SMTP standardizes the message length into multiples of the the packet size.
c. SMTP checks for virus content.
d. SMTP adds binary attachments to the content, when present.
e. SMTP adds log information to the start of the delivered message that indicates the path the message took.
b. SMTP standardizes the message length into multiples of the the packet size.
c. SMTP checks for virus content.
d. SMTP adds binary attachments to the content, when present.
e. SMTP adds log information to the start of the delivered message that indicates the path the message took.
Answers:
____________________
21.
HTTP uses TCP for communication. TCP provides connections that are reliable and
involve multiple message exchanges. Yet HTTP is said to be connectionless.
Explain this apparent contradiction.
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 08 Exam
|
INTERNET OPERATION
|
1. The source and destination address fields in the TCP header each contain a 32-bit Internet address.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
Most IP addresses consist of a network identification and a host identification
within that network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
The left-most bits of a IP address determine whether it is Class A, B, or C.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
Subnets are used where the number of networks exceeds the number of hosts
within a specific company or organization.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
Two notable consumer electronic gadgets that are impacting the traffic load on
networks are the digital versatile disc and the digital still camera.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
A digital versatile disc can store approximately 100 times more data than a
CD-ROM.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
The Internet and the Internet Protocol is designed to provide differentiated
services depending on whether traffic is elastic or inelastic.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
Typically, more complex routing protocols are used between autonomous systems
within a larger internet and relatively simple routing protocols are used
within each autonomous system.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
A QoS facility allows the Internet to treat all classes of traffic equally in
order to optimize the services provided to all users.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
An internet routing protocol is used to exchange information about reachability
and traffic delays, allowing each router to construct a next-hop routing table
for paths through the internet.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
Which of the following describes class A networks?
a. Many networks, each with a few hosts
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications
Answer:
_____
12.
Which of the following describes class B networks?
a. Many networks, each with a few hosts
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications
Answer:
_____
13.
Which of the following describes class C networks?
a. Many networks, each with a few hosts
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications
b. Medium number of networks, each with a medium number of hosts
c. Few networks, each with many hosts
d. A dedicated network, with a set number of hosts
e. A network dedicated to multicast applications
Answer:
_____
14.
The maximum number of Class A network addresses is
a. 16
b. 126
c. 128
d. 256
e. 16,384
b. 126
c. 128
d. 256
e. 16,384
Answer:
_____
15.
What is a subnet mask?
Answer:
16.
Give one example of an Internet application with elastic traffic, and one of an
application with inelastic traffic.
Answer:
17.
Why is differentiated service necessary?
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 09 Exam
|
LAN ARCHITECTURE AND PROTOCOLS
|
1. Even for large companies, isolated personal computers are often more than sufficient for current computer based tasks.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
One of the advantages of having a bottom up approach to building a LAN is that
individual managers are very close to the group and therefore understand the
needs of the department and can respond quickly .
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
One of the challenges when adopting a top down design approach to networks is
that the company must understand the individual needs of each department and be
responsive.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
Back-end Networks are used in situations where a few large computers must be
connected for low-volume data transfers.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
A Storage Area Network (SAN) is a network specifically designed to allow
specific servers the ability to share local storage devices with each other.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
One rationale for not employing Local Area Network (LAN) technology for an
entire premise is because there are differing levels of equipment, such as PCs,
servers, and mainframes.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
Twisted pair wires are immune from all interference due to electromagnetic
coupling because of the twisting of the wires.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
Coaxial cable is less susceptible to electromagnetic interference, but more
expensive, when compared with twisted pair cables.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
The major difference between Category 3 UTP and Category 5 UTP is that the
latter uses a larger sized wire for the conductors.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
The capacity of optical fiber cable is more than 1000 times greater than
coaxial cables.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
Which of the following is NOT on of the typical characteristics of back-end
networks?
a. High data rate
b. High-speed interface
c. Distributed access
d. Extended distance
e. Small number of devices
b. High-speed interface
c. Distributed access
d. Extended distance
e. Small number of devices
Answer:
_____
12.
Problems with using a single Local Area Network (LAN) to interconnect devices
on a premise include
a. Insufficient reliability, limited capacity, and
inappropriate network interconnection devices
b. Insufficient reliability, limited capacity, and limited distances
c. Insufficient reliability, limited distances, and inappropriate network interconnection devices
d. Limited distances, limited capacity, and inappropriate network interconnection devices
e. Limited distances, limited capacity, and limited sizes
b. Insufficient reliability, limited capacity, and limited distances
c. Insufficient reliability, limited distances, and inappropriate network interconnection devices
d. Limited distances, limited capacity, and inappropriate network interconnection devices
e. Limited distances, limited capacity, and limited sizes
Answer:
_____
13.
Which of following is NOT one of the design that determines data rate and
distance?
a. The number of senders
b. The number of receivers
c. Interference
d. Transmission impairment
e. Bandwidth
b. The number of receivers
c. Interference
d. Transmission impairment
e. Bandwidth
Answer:
_____
14.
The fact that signal strength falls off with distance is called
a. bandwidth.
b. attenuation.
c. resistance.
d. propagation.
e. amplification.
b. attenuation.
c. resistance.
d. propagation.
e. amplification.
Answer:
_____
15.
Which of the following is NOT one of the distinguishing characteristics for
optical fiber cables compared with twisted pair or coaxial cables?
a. Greater capacity
b. Small size
c. Lower attenuation
d. Electromagnetic isolation
e. Heavier weight
b. Small size
c. Lower attenuation
d. Electromagnetic isolation
e. Heavier weight
Answer:
_____
16.
Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristics of a building wiring
scheme using a structured cabling system?
a. The scheme refers to the wiring within a commercial
building
b. The scheme must accommodate the need for separate cabling systems for each of data, voice, and video applications
c. The scope of the system includes cabling to support of all types of information transfer, including voice, LANs, video and image transmission, and other forms of data transmission
d. The cabling layout and cable selection is independent of vendor and end-user equipment
e. The cable layout is designed to encompass distribution to all work areas within the building, so that relocation of equipment does not require rewiring but simply requires plugging the equipment into a preexisting outlet in the new location
b. The scheme must accommodate the need for separate cabling systems for each of data, voice, and video applications
c. The scope of the system includes cabling to support of all types of information transfer, including voice, LANs, video and image transmission, and other forms of data transmission
d. The cabling layout and cable selection is independent of vendor and end-user equipment
e. The cable layout is designed to encompass distribution to all work areas within the building, so that relocation of equipment does not require rewiring but simply requires plugging the equipment into a preexisting outlet in the new location
Answer:
_____
17.
When examining a MAC frame of data starting with the first bit, which of the
following describes the order of the various headers found in the frame?
a. MAC, LLC, IP, and TCP
b. TCP, IP, MAC, and LLC
c. TCP, IP, LLC, and MAC
d. MAC, IP, TCP, and LLC
e. LLC, MAC, IP, and TCP
b. TCP, IP, MAC, and LLC
c. TCP, IP, LLC, and MAC
d. MAC, IP, TCP, and LLC
e. LLC, MAC, IP, and TCP
Answer:
_____
18.
Describe what is meant by structured cabling systems?
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 10 Exam
|
ETHERNET
|
1. Network topology refers to the way individual end stations access the network prior to transmission of user data.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
The original commercial Ethernet, as well as the original IEEE 802.3 standard, operated
at 100 Mps.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
On a bus topology LAN, each station can send and receive data to or from
another station independent of other bus activity.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
A MAC frame includes various bit patterns to enable a receiver to correctly
recognize key parts of the information contained in the frame.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
In the MAC frame, the start of frame delimited (SFD) provides the receiver with
the starting point of meaningful data in the frame.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
Every MAC frame must include two addresses, which allows an alternative
receiver to be designated in the event an error occurs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
Two general approaches to connecting multiple LANs are bridges and switches.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
In general, the performance of a LAN declines with increased lengths of
connections and/or the number of devices using it.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
Because of increased functionality of modern layer 2 switches, bridges have
been replaced by these types of switches.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
A broadcast recipient address means that all devices connected to the LAN are
to receive the message.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
A layer 3 switch is just another name for a router.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
12.
Which of the following LAN technologies has the highest capacity?
a. Ethernet
b. Fast Ethernet
c. Fibre Channel
d. Wireless LAN
e. Gigabit Ethernet
b. Fast Ethernet
c. Fibre Channel
d. Wireless LAN
e. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer:
_____
13.
Which of the following is not one for the speeds found in modern Ethernet LAN?
a. 10 Mbps
b. 100 Mbps
c. 1 Gbps
d. 10 Gbps
e. 100 Gbps
b. 100 Mbps
c. 1 Gbps
d. 10 Gbps
e. 100 Gbps
Answer:
_____
14.
Describe how the CSMA/CD handles collisions.
Answer:
15.
Define and contrast the functions of bridges, switches, and hubs.
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 11 Exam
|
WIRELESS LANS
|
1. LAN Extension is an application of wireless technology in situations where it may be used as an alternative to installing additional wired LAN.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
Wireless LAN applications typically employ control modules that link wireless
LANs to wired LANs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
A wireless LAN is easier than wired LANs because there are fewer requirements
for capacity and connectivity.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
The typical coverage area for a wireless LAN is 300 to 500 meters.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
One advantage of wireless LAN use is that any transmission frequency can be
used as long as it does not interfere with other nearby applications.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
When using wireless network, roaming occurs when a mobile stations moves from
one access point (or cell) to another.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
Infrared LANs are an economic alternative to spread spectrum LANs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
The two frequency bands typically used by IEEE 802.11 wireless networks are
located approximately at 900 MHz and 2.4 GHz.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
Typical ranges (distance between sender and receiver) for a wireless LAN are of
the order 100 to 1000 meters.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
When using a wireless LAN with a notebook computer, it is necessary for the
computer not to move while the connection is active.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
Bluetooth is an alternative name for WIFI.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
12.
A significant problem when using wireless LANs or Bluetooth arises because
other applications use the same frequency bands, which causes interference
problems.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
13.
A basic service set (BSS) is
a. the smallest building block of a wireless LAN
b. the same as an access point
c. the same as a control module
d. always connected to a backbone distribution system.
e. an isolated set of devices using wireless
b. the same as an access point
c. the same as a control module
d. always connected to a backbone distribution system.
e. an isolated set of devices using wireless
Answer:
_____
14.
IEEE 802.11 defines a number of services that need to be provided by wireless
LAN to provide functionality. Which of the following is not one of these
services?
a. Association
b. Reassociation
c. Authentication
d. Coordination
e. Disassociation
b. Reassociation
c. Authentication
d. Coordination
e. Disassociation
Answer:
_____
15.
Explain how IEEE 802.11 and Bluetooth are the same and how they are different.
Answer:
16.
What types of applications are using Bluetooth?
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 12 Exam
|
CIRCUIT SWITCHING AND PACKET
SWITCHING
|
1. In most networks, not every sender/receiver pair can be connected.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
Switching nodes are devices that enable data to be moved from senders to
receivers.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
It is desirable to have only one path from sender to receiver to avoid excess
costs.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
Having multiple paths from one station to another through a network contributes
to reliability.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
Almost all wide area networks (WAN) user circuit switching.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
The public telephone network is a good example of a circuit switched network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
In a circuit switching network, the path that will be used through the network
is determined prior to any data transfer.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
Use of digital transmission for applications such as telephone requires that a
dedicated connection be established across the network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
In circuit switching networks, channel capacity between each pair of stations
and/or nodes along the connection path must be reserved regardless if used or
not.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
The major application that uses circuit switching networks is the telephone
system, thus most data transferred using this type of network is voice traffic.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
Interconnection of computer systems is not reliable when using circuit switched
networks.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
12.
Basic packet switching technology has recently been developed to replace
circuit switching.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
13.
Data communications via circuit switching involves three phases. These phases
are
a. connect, transfer, hangup
b. ring, talk, hangup
c. dial, transfer, disconnect
d. establishment, data transfer, disconnect
e. establishment, multiplex, hangup
b. ring, talk, hangup
c. dial, transfer, disconnect
d. establishment, data transfer, disconnect
e. establishment, multiplex, hangup
Answer:
_____
14.
A public telecommunications network can be described using for generic
components:
a. senders, receivers, lines, and nodes.
b. subscribers, local loops, exchanges, and trunks.
c. subscribers, trunks, nodes, and loops.
d. senders, receivers, exchanges, and trunks.
e. Local loops, subscriber lines, exchanges, and trunks.
b. subscribers, local loops, exchanges, and trunks.
c. subscribers, trunks, nodes, and loops.
d. senders, receivers, exchanges, and trunks.
e. Local loops, subscriber lines, exchanges, and trunks.
Answer:
_____
15.
Control signaling on circuit switching networks performs a number of functions.
Which of the following is NOT one of classes of function for control signaling?
a. establishment
b. supervisory
c. address
d. call information
e. network management
b. supervisory
c. address
d. call information
e. network management
Answer:
_____
16.
Which of the following is NOT one of the stated advantages of packet switching
over circuit switching?
a. There is less network delay.
b. Line efficiency is greater.
c. Data rate conversion can be provided.
d. Priorities can be used.
e. Connections are never rejected.
b. Line efficiency is greater.
c. Data rate conversion can be provided.
d. Priorities can be used.
e. Connections are never rejected.
Answer:
_____
17.
Which of the following is NOT a reason for network jitter when using packet
switching networks?
a. Packets may vary in length.
b. Switches may vary in the time required to process packets.
c. Packets may take different paths through the network.
d. Packets may encounter network congestion.
e. Data rates will vary from one trunk line to the next.
b. Switches may vary in the time required to process packets.
c. Packets may take different paths through the network.
d. Packets may encounter network congestion.
e. Data rates will vary from one trunk line to the next.
Answer:
_____
18.
Use of circuit switching networks for data connections, such as with computers,
has two shortcomings. Describe these shortcomings.
Answer:
19.
In a packet switching network, an approach where each packet of a message is
treated independently when sent across the network is called the ______
approach.
Answer:
20.
Describe the concept of virtual circuits within the context of packet switching
networks.
Answer:
Stallings
Chapter 13 Exam
|
FRAME RELAY AND ATM
|
1. For the following list of protocols, place an "L" next to those that are LAN protocols and a "W" next to those that are WAN protocols.
Frame
Relay
Token Ring
Ethernet
X.25
SONET
T-1
T-3
SMDS
ATM
Token Ring
Ethernet
X.25
SONET
T-1
T-3
SMDS
ATM
Answer:
2.
Selecting a WAN protocol for a particular business is a fairly simple task
given current pricing structures and business traffic patterns.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
Traffic leaving a network or internal telephone system is separated into
different lines and then sent to the service provider.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
X.25 uses out-of-band signaling.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
The inability of frame relay to do hop by hop error control is offset by
a. its gigabit speeds.
b. its high overhead.
c. the extensive use of in-band signaling.
d. the increasing reliability of networks.
e. the extensive use of out-of-band signaling.
b. its high overhead.
c. the extensive use of in-band signaling.
d. the increasing reliability of networks.
e. the extensive use of out-of-band signaling.
Answer:
_____
6.
Frame Relay is a more streamlined communication process than X.25.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
All of the following are part of the LAPF core except
a. frame delimiting.
b. error correction.
c. frame correction.
d. congestion control.
e. sequencing.
b. error correction.
c. frame correction.
d. congestion control.
e. sequencing.
Answer:
_____
8.
All Frame Relay nodes contain which of the following protocols?
a. LAPB
b. LAPD
c. LAPF Core
d. LAPF Control
e. CIR
b. LAPD
c. LAPF Core
d. LAPF Control
e. CIR
Answer:
_____
9.
The technique employed by Frame Relay is called
a. inband signaling.
b. outband signaling.
c. common channel signaling.
d. open shortest path first routing.
e. spanning tree algorithm.
b. outband signaling.
c. common channel signaling.
d. open shortest path first routing.
e. spanning tree algorithm.
Answer:
_____
10.
The data contained within the Frame Relay address field is the
a. MAC address.
b. Virtual circuit identifier.
c. IP number.
d. Port number
e. Data link connection identifier.
b. Virtual circuit identifier.
c. IP number.
d. Port number
e. Data link connection identifier.
Answer:
_____
11.
Systems using common channel signaling
a. employ a separate virtual channel for connection setup.
b. carry connection information within each frame.
c. use an expanded control field.
d. do not use channels.
e. also use common data channels.
b. carry connection information within each frame.
c. use an expanded control field.
d. do not use channels.
e. also use common data channels.
Answer:
_____
12.
In Frame Relay systems congestion control is the responsibility both of end
users and the network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
13.
Congestion recovery procedures are used to preserve the network during
instances of high congestion when the network has begun to drop frames.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
14.
Congestion avoidance procedures are employed when congestion starts to build up
and increasing queue lengths are detected.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
15.
Frames whose discard eligibility is set due to committed information rates are
less likely to be removed from the network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
16.
Which of the following lists the items in order such that the associated
channel capacities are increasing?
a. ATM, X.25, Frame Relay, and ISDN
b. ISDN, ATM, Frame Relay, and X.25.
c. ATM, Frame Relay, ISDN, and X.25
d. X.25, ISDN, Frame Relay, and ATM
e. ISDN, X.25, Frame Relay, and ATM
b. ISDN, ATM, Frame Relay, and X.25.
c. ATM, Frame Relay, ISDN, and X.25
d. X.25, ISDN, Frame Relay, and ATM
e. ISDN, X.25, Frame Relay, and ATM
Answer:
_____
17.
In ATM, the basic transmission unit is the
a. frame.
b. cell.
c. packet.
d. circuit.
e. segment.
b. cell.
c. packet.
d. circuit.
e. segment.
Answer:
_____
18.
The ATM connections are identified by
a. virtual paths within data link identifiers.
b. virtual channels within virtual paths.
c. virtual circuits within virtual paths.
d. virtual paths within virtual channels.
e. virtual circuits within data link identifiers.
b. virtual channels within virtual paths.
c. virtual circuits within virtual paths.
d. virtual paths within virtual channels.
e. virtual circuits within data link identifiers.
Answer:
_____
19.
When using ATM, which of the following is NOT one of the advantages for the use
of virtual paths
a. Less work is needed to set a virtual path.
b. The network architecture is simplified.
c. The network performance and reliability is enhanced.
d. Channel connection setup times are reduced.
e. Enhanced network services are available for users.
b. The network architecture is simplified.
c. The network performance and reliability is enhanced.
d. Channel connection setup times are reduced.
e. Enhanced network services are available for users.
Answer:
_____
20.
When using ATM, which of the following is NOT a characteristic of virtual
channel connections?
a. Quality of service can be specified.
b. All connections are switched.
c. Sequencing is provided.
d. Traffic patterns can be monitored.
e. Dedicated channels can be provided.
b. All connections are switched.
c. Sequencing is provided.
d. Traffic patterns can be monitored.
e. Dedicated channels can be provided.
Answer:
_____
21.
The cell loss priority within the ATM cell is similar to the DE bit in Frame
Relay.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
22.
One of the reasons for ATMs high rate of speed in the fact that the protocol
does no pre-connection setup and therefore there is no delay.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
23.
Due to the fixed cell size, the processing of ATM cells is faster than
protocols employing a variable length cell.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
24.
Because of the high speeds involved and the small amount of overhead, when
compared to Frame Relay, congestion control in ATM networks is more complex.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
25.
ATM provides a flexible set of traffic control mechanisms that are based on the
type of user data.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
Stallings
Chapter 14 Exam
|
WIRELESS WANS
|
1. Wireless networks are more susceptible than wired networks to interference, signal loss, noise, and eavesdropping.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
Wireless networks compete effectively in terms of data transfer rates when
compared with wired networks.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
When using wireless networks, there are limitations on which frequencies can be
used for the channels.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
Prior to cellular radio, mobile radio and telephone services required
a. a high-power transmitter/receiver.
b. multiple transmitters/receivers.
c. only one or two dedicated channels.
d. that many channels be used, which exceed the frequency capacity.
e. wired networks for support.
b. multiple transmitters/receivers.
c. only one or two dedicated channels.
d. that many channels be used, which exceed the frequency capacity.
e. wired networks for support.
Answer:
_____
5.
When using cellular networks,
a. a single base station can serve multiple cells.
b. adjacent cells must use the same frequencies.
c. adjacent cells are assigned different frequencies.
d. non-adjacent cells are assigned different frequencies.
e. non-adjacent cells can use any frequency.
b. adjacent cells must use the same frequencies.
c. adjacent cells are assigned different frequencies.
d. non-adjacent cells are assigned different frequencies.
e. non-adjacent cells can use any frequency.
Answer:
_____
6.
The ideal design for cells in a cellular network is a hexagonal shape because
a. this makes enforcement of shapes easier.
b. this is the easiest to implement.
c. this makes all frequencies available to all cells.
d. makes the distance to all adjacent cells the same.
e. all cells can be isolated.
b. this is the easiest to implement.
c. this makes all frequencies available to all cells.
d. makes the distance to all adjacent cells the same.
e. all cells can be isolated.
Answer:
_____
7.
When using a wireless systems, you are limited in how often you can use the
same frequency band for different communications because the signals are not
constrained and can interfere with each other even when separated
geographically.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
In cellular communications systems, base stations (BS) are located in the
geographic center of cells and handle communications between mobile units and
the rest of the network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
Each mobile telecommunications switch office is connected to one base station
and provides a management interface between that base station and the rest of
the network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
The two types of channels that are available between the mobile unit and the
base station are ______________ and _______________.
Answer:
11.
The specific base station that communicates with the mobile unit is selected by
the MTSO based on the strength of the signal received from the mobile unit.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
12.
The base station selected for communication with a mobile unit is always the
one closest to the current location of the unit.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
13.
When a mobile unit moves, it may connect with a different base station. This
action is called
a. a handoff.
b. a transfer.
c. a reconfiguration.
d. a dropped signal.
e. an intertower pickup.
b. a transfer.
c. a reconfiguration.
d. a dropped signal.
e. an intertower pickup.
Answer:
_____
14.
Which of the following is NOT one of the ways that frequency spectrum can be
divided among active users?
a. frequency division multiple access
b. time division multiple access
c. code division multiple access
d. space division multiple access
e. cell division multiple access
b. time division multiple access
c. code division multiple access
d. space division multiple access
e. cell division multiple access
Answer:
_____
15.
First generation mobile telephone systems used analog voice communication based
on amplitude modulation.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
16.
Because of the limited frequencies available, a key design element of any
cellular system is to
a. use small cells.
b. employ multiple access.
c. limit the number of users at one time.
d. use as many frequencies as possible.
e. use as few frequencies as possible.
b. employ multiple access.
c. limit the number of users at one time.
d. use as many frequencies as possible.
e. use as few frequencies as possible.
Answer:
_____
17.
The objective of the third generation of wireless communication is to provide
high speed wireless communications to support multimedia, data, and video, in
addition to voice.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
18.
The idea of universal personal telecommunications refers to the capability of
using one's terminal in a wide variety of environments to connect to
information services.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
19.
The Wireless Application Protocol (WAP) is
a. proprietary protocol developed in the USA for wireless
security.
b. dependent on the specific network technologies employed.
c. an Internet standard that replaces HTML, HTTP, and XML.
d. designed to overcome many of the limitations hindering acceptance of mobile data services.
e. used primarily with mobile paging systems.
b. dependent on the specific network technologies employed.
c. an Internet standard that replaces HTML, HTTP, and XML.
d. designed to overcome many of the limitations hindering acceptance of mobile data services.
e. used primarily with mobile paging systems.
Answer:
_____
20.
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of the WAP specification?
a. A framework for wireless telephony applications
b. A full-featured communications protocol stack
c. A programming model based on the WWW
d. A markup language adhering to XML
e. A specification of a small browser
b. A full-featured communications protocol stack
c. A programming model based on the WWW
d. A markup language adhering to XML
e. A specification of a small browser
Answer:
_____
21.
The WAP Programming Model uses a ________ that acts as a proxy server for the
wireless domain.
a. translator
b. WAP server
c. decoder
d. compressor
e. gateway
b. WAP server
c. decoder
d. compressor
e. gateway
Answer:
_____
22.
Satellite communications is comparable in importance to optical fiber in the
evolution of telecommunications and data communications.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
23.
Which of the following is a problem when using Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO)
satellites?
a. Tracking of the satellite position requires a
computerized control system.
b. Large portions of the earth are out of reach of the systems.
c. The Doppler effect causes problems.
d. Because of distance, there are significant time delays in transmission times.
e. Only a few satellites can be position in orbit at any one time.
b. Large portions of the earth are out of reach of the systems.
c. The Doppler effect causes problems.
d. Because of distance, there are significant time delays in transmission times.
e. Only a few satellites can be position in orbit at any one time.
Answer:
_____
24.
The two alternative satellite schemes to GEO are
a. WAP and MEO
b. LEO and MEO
c. LEO and WAP
d. VSAT and WAP
e. VSAT and DBS
b. LEO and MEO
c. LEO and WAP
d. VSAT and WAP
e. VSAT and DBS
Answer:
_____
Stallings
Chapter 15 Exam
|
DATA TRANSMISSION
|
1. Electromagnetic signals
a. are used only for optics.
b. are used for analog and digital signals.
c. are used for digital signals only.
d. are used for analog signals only.
e. are used for both optics and digital signals.
b. are used for analog and digital signals.
c. are used for digital signals only.
d. are used for analog signals only.
e. are used for both optics and digital signals.
Answer:
_____
2.
Analog signals differ from digital signals in that
a. analog signals are represented vs. time while digital
signals are measured vs. frequency.
b. analog signals are periodic, digital signals are not.
c. analog signals are continuous while digital signals remain at one constant level and then move to another constant level.
d. analog signals operate a higher frequencies than digital signals.
e. digital signals operate at higher frequencies than analog signals.
b. analog signals are periodic, digital signals are not.
c. analog signals are continuous while digital signals remain at one constant level and then move to another constant level.
d. analog signals operate a higher frequencies than digital signals.
e. digital signals operate at higher frequencies than analog signals.
Answer:
_____
3.
Given a frequency of 60 Hz (cycles per second), the period of the signal is
a. 0.166667 sec.
b. 0.166667 Hz.
c. one second.
d. 60 seconds.
e. 1 Hz.
b. 0.166667 Hz.
c. one second.
d. 60 seconds.
e. 1 Hz.
Answer:
_____
4.
A sine wave is a periodic signal that
a. has equal phase, frequency and amplitude.
b. can be either digital or analog.
c. has a maximum peak amplitude equal to it's frequency.
d. has a frequency that is less than its amplitude.
e. can be measured in terms of it's amplitude, frequency and phase.
b. can be either digital or analog.
c. has a maximum peak amplitude equal to it's frequency.
d. has a frequency that is less than its amplitude.
e. can be measured in terms of it's amplitude, frequency and phase.
Answer:
_____
5.
Convert 1 1/2 p radians to degrees.
a. 45
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270
e. 360
b. 90
c. 180
d. 270
e. 360
Answer:
_____
6.
The wavelength of an analog signal is
a. the distance traveled by the wave in the time defined by
it's period.
b. the distance traveled by the wave in one second.
c. the distance traveled by the wave during its period.
d. the period of the wave.
e. the amplitude of the wave.
b. the distance traveled by the wave in one second.
c. the distance traveled by the wave during its period.
d. the period of the wave.
e. the amplitude of the wave.
Answer:
_____
7.
Given a frequency of 1000 Hz and a speed of 3X108 m/s (speed of light) what is the wavelength of
the signal?
a. 1000 m
b. 3 m
c. 3x108 m
d. 3x105 m
e. 3x103 m
b. 3 m
c. 3x108 m
d. 3x105 m
e. 3x103 m
Answer:
_____
8.
The spectrum of a signal is
a. the lowest frequency value subtracted from the highest .
b. the range of frequencies in the signal.
c. all of the frequencies from 0 to the highest frequency used.
d. the average of the highest frequency and the lowest.
e. the average of the lowest frequency used.
b. the range of frequencies in the signal.
c. all of the frequencies from 0 to the highest frequency used.
d. the average of the highest frequency and the lowest.
e. the average of the lowest frequency used.
Answer:
_____
9.
The bandwidth of a signal is
a. the width of the spectrum.
b. the average of the frequencies.
c. the range of frequencies in the signal.
d. the maximum amplitude of the signal.
e. the minimum amplitude in the signal.
b. the average of the frequencies.
c. the range of frequencies in the signal.
d. the maximum amplitude of the signal.
e. the minimum amplitude in the signal.
Answer:
_____
10.
The frequency of human speech is in the range of
a. 20-1000 Hz.
b. 20-3400 Hz.
c. 300-3400 Hz.
d. 20-20,000 Hz.
e. 10-25,000 Hz.
b. 20-3400 Hz.
c. 300-3400 Hz.
d. 20-20,000 Hz.
e. 10-25,000 Hz.
Answer:
_____
11.
The loudness of a signal is measured by its amplitude.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
12.
In the telephone system, conversations are reproduced using the range from
300-3400 Hz in order to limit the required capacity of transmission lines.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
13.
Given a resolution of 320 pixels x 240 pixels, 1 byte of color information per
pixel and a transmission rate of 30 frames per second, calculate the bandwidth
necessary for this signal
a. 18.4 Mbps
b. 2.3 Mbps
c. 18.4 Kbps
d. 6 Mbps
e. 4 Mbps
b. 2.3 Mbps
c. 18.4 Kbps
d. 6 Mbps
e. 4 Mbps
Answer:
_____
14.
Digital signaling usually means that the information being conveyed is binary.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
15.
Convert 45 to binary.
a. 110101
b. 101101
c. 011111
d. 100011
e. 100 101
b. 101101
c. 011111
d. 100011
e. 100 101
Answer:
_____
16.
Attenuation is the reduction in signal strength as the signal propagates down the
transmission path.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
17.
Attenuation is greater at lower frequencies.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
18.
In order to completely compensate for attenuation, the signal generated must be
at least as high in strength than the noise of the channel
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
19.
Delay distortion is due to
a. wait times between keyboard entry and actual transmission
of data.
b. portions of the signal arriving at the destination at different times.
c. varying levels of signal strength.
d. the difference between fiber and copper transmission properties.
e. line attenuation.
b. portions of the signal arriving at the destination at different times.
c. varying levels of signal strength.
d. the difference between fiber and copper transmission properties.
e. line attenuation.
Answer:
_____
20.
In general, noise can be defined as
a. loud, high amplitude signals.
b. errors in transmission.
c. signals generated by internetworking equipment.
d. analog signals instead of digital.
e. unwanted energy or signals on the transmission path.
b. errors in transmission.
c. signals generated by internetworking equipment.
d. analog signals instead of digital.
e. unwanted energy or signals on the transmission path.
Answer:
_____
21.
Match each of the following with the definitions.
___ 1. thermal noise
___ 2. intermodulation noise
___ 3. crosstalk
___ 4. impulse noise
___ 2. intermodulation noise
___ 3. crosstalk
___ 4. impulse noise
a. noise generated by agitation of the
electrons in a conductor
b. irregular pulses or spikes of high amplitude caused by external sources
irregular pulses or spikes of high amplitude used by external sources
c. unwanted coupling between signal paths
d. signal produced on a line that is the sum or difference of the signals that created it
b. irregular pulses or spikes of high amplitude caused by external sources
irregular pulses or spikes of high amplitude used by external sources
c. unwanted coupling between signal paths
d. signal produced on a line that is the sum or difference of the signals that created it
22.
Because of it's characteristics, free space loss is a particular problems in
a. microwave tower transmissions.
b. wide area network transmissions.
c. dial up or modem transmissions.
d. satellite transmissions
e. LANs
b. wide area network transmissions.
c. dial up or modem transmissions.
d. satellite transmissions
e. LANs
Answer:
_____
23.
Atmospheric absorption occurs because of
a. the distances traversed in atmospheric transmission.
b. the water and oxygen content.
c. pollution and carbon content.
d. nitrogen content.
e. the ozone layer.
b. the water and oxygen content.
c. pollution and carbon content.
d. nitrogen content.
e. the ozone layer.
Answer:
_____
24.
Multipath problems are particularly problematic in line of sight applications.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
25.
Refraction refers to the bending of the signal.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
26.
Referring to Shannon's equation, in order to increase the data rate of a
signal, we need only increase the bandwidth.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
Stallings
Chapter 16 Exam
|
DATA COMMUNICATIONS
|
1. Analog signals are
a. continuous.
b. discrete.
c. discontinuous.
d. Both A and B.
e. Both B and C.
b. discrete.
c. discontinuous.
d. Both A and B.
e. Both B and C.
Answer:
_____
2.
Digital signals are
a. continuous.
b. discrete.
c. discontinuous.
d. Both A and B.
e. Both B and C.
b. discrete.
c. discontinuous.
d. Both A and B.
e. Both B and C.
Answer:
_____
3.
In modern communication systems, data is sent from one point to another via
a. input data.
b. alternating current (A/C).
c. pressure changes.
d. electromagnetic signals.
e. direct current (D/C).
b. alternating current (A/C).
c. pressure changes.
d. electromagnetic signals.
e. direct current (D/C).
Answer:
_____
4.
Analog signals are less susceptible to noise interference and are more prone to
attenuation than digital signals
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
Except for digital cellular telephones, copper wire is required for digital
transmission.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
One of the main differences between amplifiers and repeaters is that
a. amplifiers forward noise as well as data.
b. amplifiers clean the signal and then forward it.
c. amplifiers increase the amount of attenuation.
d. amplifiers focus primarily on digital signals.
e. amplifiers focus primarily on analog signals.
b. amplifiers clean the signal and then forward it.
c. amplifiers increase the amount of attenuation.
d. amplifiers focus primarily on digital signals.
e. amplifiers focus primarily on analog signals.
Answer:
_____
7.
Identify each of the following as either analog or digital signals. Use A if
analog and D if digital.
Whales
Human voice
Computer bus communication
Cellular telephones
Satellite transmission
T-1 circuits
Whales
Human voice
Computer bus communication
Cellular telephones
Satellite transmission
T-1 circuits
Answer:
8.
An encoding scheme is used
a. in digital transmission to map binary digits to signal
elements.
b. in analog transmission to clean up the quality of the transmission.
c. to help minimize errors.
d. A, B, and C.
e. A and B only.
b. in analog transmission to clean up the quality of the transmission.
c. to help minimize errors.
d. A, B, and C.
e. A and B only.
Answer:
_____
9.
Analog encoding of digital information modulates a wave known as the
carrier in terms of its phase, frequency or amplitude.
carrier in terms of its phase, frequency or amplitude.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
For amplitude, frequency or phase shift keying, that respective characteristic
of the carrier wave is changed to indicate the next binary digit. These binary
digits can be represented by this signal change or a lack of signal change.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
11.
Each signal change or element is called a
a. bit.
b. byte.
c. baud.
d. signal.
e. digit.
b. byte.
c. baud.
d. signal.
e. digit.
Answer:
_____
12.
A carrier wave is modulated with 4 amplitudes and 4 phase changes. How many
possible signal combinations are there?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
e. 64
b. 8
c. 16
d. 32
e. 64
Answer:
_____
13.
A carrier wave is modulated with 4 amplitudes and 4 phase changes. How many
bits can be represented with each signal change?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
Answer:
_____
14.
Match each of the following with its description.
___ 1. Pulse code modulation
___ 2. LAN transmission
___ 3. Modem transmission
___ 4. Telephone transmission
___ 2. LAN transmission
___ 3. Modem transmission
___ 4. Telephone transmission
a. analog data, analog encoding
b. analog data, digital encoding.
c. digital data, digital encoding
d. digital data, analog encoding
b. analog data, digital encoding.
c. digital data, digital encoding
d. digital data, analog encoding
15.
In Non Return to Zero encoding schemes, the signal or voltage level does not
return to 0v (zero volts). One of the problems with this type of encoding is
that
a. it does not work well with serial communications.
b. it is designed primarily for high speed communications only.
c. the signal ground of the transmitter is often different from that of the receiver
d. it works only for analog signals.
e. it is sometimes difficult to synchronize the timing of the transmitter and the receiver.
b. it is designed primarily for high speed communications only.
c. the signal ground of the transmitter is often different from that of the receiver
d. it works only for analog signals.
e. it is sometimes difficult to synchronize the timing of the transmitter and the receiver.
Answer:
_____
16.
In order to compensate for synchronization problems, another type of encoding
method called biphase can be employed. These methods place a clock pulse within
the data stream.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
17.
It is difficult to use low frequencies for unguided radio transmission of data
because the antenna dishes would have to be extremely large.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
18.
Asynchronous transmission includes a start and stop bit with each character
transmitted to ensure
a. that the total number of bits is a factor of 10.
b. to allow a continuous stream of data.
c. to prevent single bit errors from occurring.
d. to allow the receiver to maintain synchronization with the sender.
e. to allow variable length encoding schemes.
b. to allow a continuous stream of data.
c. to prevent single bit errors from occurring.
d. to allow the receiver to maintain synchronization with the sender.
e. to allow variable length encoding schemes.
Answer:
_____
19.
The efficiency of an asynchronous transmission using 1 stop bit, 1 start bit
and 1 parity bit is
a. 20 %.
b. 30 %.
c. 50 %.
d. 70 %.
e. 80 %.
b. 30 %.
c. 50 %.
d. 70 %.
e. 80 %.
Answer:
_____
20.
Synchronous serial transmissions are frame based, require the use of a preamble
and are more efficient than asynchronous serial transmissions.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
21.
Standards are important when devices must communicate together. The four
characteristics governed by these standards are
a. mechanical, electrical, functional, and procedural.
b. electrical, physical, functional, and signaling.
c. fundamental, mechanical, procedural, and protocol.
d. protocol, fundamental, physical, and signaling.
e. physical, virtual, electrical, and functional.
b. electrical, physical, functional, and signaling.
c. fundamental, mechanical, procedural, and protocol.
d. protocol, fundamental, physical, and signaling.
e. physical, virtual, electrical, and functional.
Answer:
_____
22.
Error detection requires that extra bits be introduced into the data stream.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
23.
Parity checking for error detection is most reliable for checking
communications using high data rates.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
24.
An error detecting scheme that employs a unique prime number is called
a. parity checking.
b. frame sequence checking.
c. error checking and error correcting.
d. cyclic redundancy check.
e. synchronous redundancy check.
b. frame sequence checking.
c. error checking and error correcting.
d. cyclic redundancy check.
e. synchronous redundancy check.
Answer:
_____
Stallings
Chapter 17 Exam
|
DATA LINK CONTROL AND MULTIPLEXING
|
1. Stop-and-wait is the simplest form of flow control.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
Sliding window is one form of error control.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
The two commonly used forms of ARQ are “stop-and-wait” and “go back N”.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
HDLC uses CRC for error detection.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
Data link control protocols are typically used only in asynchronous
communication.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
Match each of the following elements of the HDLC protocol with the item that
best describes it.
___ 1. information
___ 2. flag
___ 3. control
___ 4. address
___ 5. frame check sequence
___ 2. flag
___ 3. control
___ 4. address
___ 5. frame check sequence
a. Contains a 16- or 32-bit cyclic
redundancy check used for error detection
b. Appears at the beginning and end of the frame; used for synchronization
c. Indicates the secondary station in a transmission
d. Contains the user data to be transmitted
e. Identifies the function and purpose of the frame
b. Appears at the beginning and end of the frame; used for synchronization
c. Indicates the secondary station in a transmission
d. Contains the user data to be transmitted
e. Identifies the function and purpose of the frame
7. Provide the full name for each of
the following acronyms
ARQ
CRC
HDLC
FCS
LLC
CRC
HDLC
FCS
LLC
Answer:
8.
Which of the following is NOT a common component of an error control process?
a. Error detection
b. Positive acknowledgement
c. Retransmission after timeout
d. Negative acknowledgment and retransmission
e. Damaged frame.
b. Positive acknowledgement
c. Retransmission after timeout
d. Negative acknowledgment and retransmission
e. Damaged frame.
Answer:
_____
9.
The types of frames used in HDLC are
a. Exchanged information, information, and unnumbered.
b. Information, supervisory, and unnumbered.
c. Information, supervisory, and control.
d. Information, supervisory, and exchange.
e. Supervisory, unnumbered, and set synchronous.
b. Information, supervisory, and unnumbered.
c. Information, supervisory, and control.
d. Information, supervisory, and exchange.
e. Supervisory, unnumbered, and set synchronous.
Answer:
_____
10.
Briefly define and explain ARQ.
Answer:
11.
What are the three phases of HDLC?
Answer:
12.
What is the primary difference between stop-and-wait flow control and
sliding-window flow-control.
Answer:
13.
Explain what a frame check sequence is.
Answer:
14.
Which of the following is a generic term that describes sharing of a
communications channel by multiple communicating stations?
a. HDLC
b. Multiprogramming
c. Multi-access channels
d. Digital channels
e. Multiplexing
b. Multiprogramming
c. Multi-access channels
d. Digital channels
e. Multiplexing
Answer:
_____
15.
A multiplexing technique where multiple users use distinct carrier frequencies
separated such that the modulated signals do not overlap is called
a. frequency division multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.
Answer:
_____
16.
A multiplexing technique where multiple users use distinct time slots such that
the transmitted bits are shared by all users is called
a. frequency division multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.
Answer:
_____
17.
Present-day television, both broadcast and cable employ
a. frequency division multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.
b. time division multiplexing.
c. separate channel multiplexing.
d. common channel multiplexing.
e. separate frequency multiplexing.
Answer:
_____
18.
Which of the following is NOT one of the example applications of T-1 leased
transmission facilities?
a. Cable television systems
b. Private data networks
c. Video teleconferencing
d. Internet access
e. High-speed digital facsimile
b. Private data networks
c. Video teleconferencing
d. Internet access
e. High-speed digital facsimile
Answer:
_____
19.
The term SONET corresponds to
a. special operations networking environment testing.
b. synchronous optical networking environment testing.
c. synchronous operational networking.
d. system optical networking.
e. synchronous optical network.
b. synchronous optical networking environment testing.
c. synchronous operational networking.
d. system optical networking.
e. synchronous optical network.
Answer:
_____
20.
SONET/SDH signal payload speeds range
a. from 902 Mbps to 1.53 Gbps.
b. from 50 Mbps to 1.53 Gbps.
c. from 50 Mbps to 1.53 Gbps.
d. from 1.80 Mbps to 2.4 Mbps
e. from 1.8 Mbps to 153 Gbps.
b. from 50 Mbps to 1.53 Gbps.
c. from 50 Mbps to 1.53 Gbps.
d. from 1.80 Mbps to 2.4 Mbps
e. from 1.8 Mbps to 153 Gbps.
Answer:
_____
Stallings
Chapter 18 Exam
|
|
1. Data confidentiality assures that individuals control or influence what information related to them may be collected and stored.
a. True
b. False (the definition refers to privacy)
b. False (the definition refers to privacy)
Answer: _____
2.
The three key objectives of computer security are confidentiality, integrity,
and availability.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
3.
Repudiation refers to a user either denying sending data or a user denying
receiving or possessing the data.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
4.
Traffic analysis is an active attack.
a. True
b. False (it is passive)
b. False (it is passive)
Answer: _____
5.
A masquerader is a legitimate user who accesses data, programs, or resources
for which such access is not authorized.
a. True
b. False (that is a misfeasor)
b. False (that is a misfeasor)
Answer: _____
6.
All parasitic malware is software that replicates.
a. True
b. False (logic bombs are parasitic but do not replicate, for example)
b. False (logic bombs are parasitic but do not replicate, for example)
Answer: _____
7.
A backdoor is the same as a trapdoor.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
8.
A logic bomb is a useful, or apparently useful, program or command procedure
containing hidden code that, when invoked, performs some unwanted or harmful
function.
a. True
b. False (that describes a Trojan Horse)
b. False (that describes a Trojan Horse)
Answer: _____
9.
Most viruses carry out their work in a manner that is specific to a particular
operating system.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
10.
A virus can be prepended or postpended to an executable program, or it can be
embedded in some other fashion.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
11.
A macro virus is a larger and more self-contained than an ordinary virus.
a. True
b. False (a macro virus infects files with macro code)
b. False (a macro virus infects files with macro code)
Answer: _____
12.
An encrypted virus can only be triggered after an external software program is
triggered to decrypt the virus.
a. True
b. False (the virus encrypts and decrypts a portion of itself)
b. False (the virus encrypts and decrypts a portion of itself)
Answer: _____
13.
A stealth virus is explicitly designed to hide itself from detection by
antivirus software.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
14.
A worm is a program that can replicate itself and send copies from computer to
computer across network connections.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
15. Important objectives of computer
security include:
a.
Confidentiality
b.
Integrity
c.
Availability
d.
All of the above
Answer: _____
16. One type of attack on the security
of a computer system or network that impacts the availability of a system (e.g.
destruction of a resource in the system) is referred to as:
a.
Interruption
b.Interception
c.
Modification
d.
All of the above
Answer: _____
17. The type of attack on
communications lines and networks known as traffic analysis belongs to the
general category of:
a.
Active attacks
b.
Passive attacks
c.
Administrative attacks
d.
None of the above
Answer: _____
18. Of the three classes of intruders
into computer systems and networks, the clandestine user is typically:
a.
An insider to the organization
b.
An outsider to the organization
c.
Either an insider or an outsider to the organization
d.
None of the above
Answer: _____
19. Which of the following is not an
example of intrusion:
a.
Guessing and cracking passwords
b.
Running a packet sniffer on a workstation to capture user names and passwords
c.
Using an unattended, logged-in workstation without permission
d.
All of the above are examples of intrusion
Answer: _____
20. A secret entry point into a program
that allows intruders aware of the breached area to gain access and bypass the
usual security access procedures is called a:
a.
Logic bomb
b.
Trojan horse
c.
Virus
d.
None of the above
Answer: _____
21. The stage of a virus where it is
activated to perform the function for which it was intended is referred to as
the:
a.
Propagation phase
b.
Triggering phase
c.
Execution phase
d.
None of the above
Answer: _____
22. A virus can be attached to a
program by:
a.
Prepending
b.
Postpending
c.
Embedding other than at the beginning or end
d.
All of the above
Answer: _____
23. Which of the following statements
regarding macro viruses is true:
a.
A macro virus is platform independent
b.
Macro viruses infect documents, not executable portions of code
c.
Macro viruses are easily spread
d.
All of the above
Answer: _____
24. Which of the following statements
is generally true regarding the original class of email viruses:
a.
It sends itself to selected names on the user’s email mailing list
b.
Arrive in email attachments
c.
Usually do no local damage on the infected machine
d.
All of the above
Answer: _____
25. The network vehicle used for worm
propagation is:
a.
Electronic mail facility
b.
Remote execution capability
c.
Remote login capability
d.
All of the above
Answer: _____
26. A worm that can attack a variety of
OSs rather than a single OS such as Windows is:
a.Multiplatform
b.
Multi-exploit
c.
Polymorphic
d.
Metamorphic
Answer: _____
27. The primary mechanism used in
implementing denial-of-service attacks is the:
a.
Worm
b.
Trojan horse
c.
Bot
d.
All of the above
Answer: _____
Stallings
Chapter 19 Exam
|
|
1.
Ipsec is based primarily upon the DES standard.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
2.
Transport mode in IPSec provides protection to the entire IP packet.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
3.
IPSec provides authentication, encryption, and key exchange functions.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
4.
SSL performs encryption first, followed by computing a message authentication
code.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
5.
IEEE 802.11i consists of two main functions: authentication and access control.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
6.
A security intrusion is defined as a successful attempt by a user to gain
access to a system or system resource without proper authorization.
a. True
b. False (an unsuccessful attempt is also considered an intrusion)
b. False (an unsuccessful attempt is also considered an intrusion)
Answer: _____
7.
Typically, a firewall is inserted between the premises network and the Internet
to establish a controlled link and to erect an outer security wall or
perimeter.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
8,
Generic decryption (GD) technology enables the antivirus program to easily
detect even the most complex polymorphic viruses while maintaining fast
scanning speeds.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer: _____
9.
IPSec transport mode provides protection primarily for:
a. the Internet layer
b. upper-layer protocols
c. network and link-layer protocols
b. upper-layer protocols
c. network and link-layer protocols
d. all of the above
Answer: _____
10.
The higher-layer protocols defined as part of SSL include:
a. handshake protocol
b. change cipher spec protocol
b. change cipher spec protocol
c. alert protocol
d. all of the above
Answer: _____
11.
The WiFi standard known as Privacy with message integrity can be described as
follows:
a. A way of ensuring the privacy of the individual using
WiFi
b. A technique that ensures that the data transmitted using WiFi have not been altered
b. A technique that ensures that the data transmitted using WiFi have not been altered
c. A way of providing mutual authentication between a user
and an AS
d. None of the above
Answer: _____
12.
A key logical component of an IDS is:
a. sensors
b. analyzers
b. analyzers
c. user interface
d. all of the above
Answer: _____
13.
A stateful inspection firewall
a. applies a set of rules to each incoming and outgoing IP
packet and then forwards or discards the packet
b. controls TCP traffic by creating a directory of outbound TCP connections
b. controls TCP traffic by creating a directory of outbound TCP connections
c. acts as a relay of application-level traffic
d. sets up two TCP connections, one between itself and a TCP
user on an inner host and one between itself and a TCP user on an outside host
Answer: _____
14.
Which of the following is not a central element of a typical antivirus scheme
a. detection
b. identification
b. identification
c. removal
d. deterrence
Answer: _____
15.
For VPNs, both authentication and are
generally desired.
Ans: _____
16.
SSL is designed to make use of TCP to provide .
Ans: _____
17. IEEE 802.11i makes use of another standard that was
designed to provide access control functions for LANs. The standard is .
Ans: _____
18. The firewall cannot protect against attacks that the firewall
Ans: _____
Stallings
Chapter 20 Exam
|
NETWORK MANAGEMENT
|
1. When a network fault occurs, it is important to isolate the fault area from the rest of the network.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
2.
User requirements are a critical part of determining network management
requirements.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
3.
SNMP was developed for use on TCP/IP networks.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
4.
SNMP operates using the TCP protocol.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
5.
SNMP “trap” messages are generated by the management station.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
6.
The most important characteristic of a network is availability.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
7.
A network fault is another name for a network error.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
8.
SNMPv4 is the current standard for network management.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
9.
Software performance monitors are typically less expensive than hardware
performance monitors.
a. True
b. False
b. False
Answer:
_____
10.
Fault management deals with
a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed
objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
Answer:
_____
11.
Accounting management deals with
a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed
objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
Answer:
_____
12.
Configuration and name management deals with
a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed
objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
Answer:
_____
13.
Performance management deals with
a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed
objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
Answer:
_____
14.
Security management deals with
a. Facilities needed to evaluate the behavior of managed
objects and the effectiveness of communication
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
b. Aspects essential to operate OSI network management correctly and to protect managed objects
c. Facilities that enable charges to be established for the use of managed objects
d. Facilities that exercise control over, identify, collect data from, and provide data to managed objects
e. Facilities that enable the detection, isolation, and correction of abnormal operation of the OSI environment
Answer:
_____
15.
Which of the following was intended to correct security deficiencies in network
management?
a. SNMP
b. SNMPv1
c. SNMPv2
d. SNMPv3
e. SNMPv4
b. SNMPv1
c. SNMPv2
d. SNMPv3
e. SNMPv4
Answer:
_____
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